Real IT Certification Training: Pass Exam & Get Certified Prepare for your next IT certification exam and succeed with a high passing score, guaranteed! High quality training materilas from Mon, 14 Aug 2017 03:03:36 +0000 en-US hourly 1 [New Microsoft Questions From Google Drive] 2017 Updated Microsoft Specialist 70-532 Dumps | Azure 70-532 PDF Exam Youtube Training Certification Answers with Latest Version PDF&VCE Mon, 14 Aug 2017 03:02:10 +0000 Read More]]> Even if you spend a small amount of time to prepare for Microsoft 70-532 dumps, you can also pass the exam successfully with the help of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-532 dumps. 2017 Pass4itsure updated Microsoft Specialist dumps, Azure 70-532 pdf exam Youtube training certification answers with latest version pdf&vce.

Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 155

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The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
70-532 exam Correct Answer: B
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A
You create a VM named cVM_005 for a newly hired contractor.
The contractor reports that the VM runs out of memory when the contractor attempts to test the mobile applications.
You need to double the memory that is available for the VM.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C

D. Option D
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: A
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
You need to implement tracing for the website after the website is deployed.
Which code segment should you insert at line CF13?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: C
You need to configure a VM for a new contractor.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:
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You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.

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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

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You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options
in the answer area.
Hot Area:

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You configure alerts in Azure. The metrics shown in the following exhibit represent the average
values for each five-minute period.

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To answer, make the appropriate selections in the answer area.
70-532 exam Hot Area:


You need to configure storage for the solution.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations.
Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

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Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

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You need to configure scaling for the plagiarism detection service.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate values in the dialog box in the answer area.
Hot Area:

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Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400” />

B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A


You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection service.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

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70-532 pdf Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

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You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
Correct Answer: C


You need to deploy the FileProcessor.exe program.
How should you update the project configuration file for the program? To answer, select the appropriate
option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:



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70-532 vce Hot Area:

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You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-160
Exam Name: DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Updated: Jul 28, 2017
Q&As: 360

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1.Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A.The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B.Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer’s hard
C.The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D.The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
300-160 exam Answer:B
2.When capturing a computer’s personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
3.AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server. Which statement is now true?
A.moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B.images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C.this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D.the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
300-160 dumps Answer:B
4.Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
5.Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows 95
C.Windows NT
D.Windows XP
E.Windows 2003
G.Windows 98
300-160 pdf Answer:A C D E
6.AClient has not been password protected. Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on
the AClient icon from a managed computer? (Choose three.)
A.initiate Microsoft’s Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B.view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C.change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console

D.change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E.monitor AClient’s communication with the Deployment Server
F.reinstall AClient
G.edit the AClient template file
Answer:B C E
7.Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
300-160 vce Answer:C
8.How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A.layers can be imported to a managed computer
B.layers can be created
C.the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D.the content of a layer can be modified
Answer:A C
9.Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
300-160 dumps Answer:A
10.Deployment Solution’s Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
D..NET framework
E.Pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer:D F
11.You are using the Deployment Console’s New Job Wizard to migrate a computer’s personality from
one computer to different computer. What happens to the names of these two computers during this
A.The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B.The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C.The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
300-160 exam Answer:B
12.When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A.Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.

B.If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
C.A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D.Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
13.While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers. Which UNDI driver
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B.UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel’s Web site before they can be used.
C.UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer’s network driver for
each network card.
D.UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E.UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
300-160 pdf Answer:C D
14.When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension ?
A.cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B.must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C.cannot be converted to .IMG files
D.can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
15.You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start. What is the probable cause?
A.the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B.Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C.the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D.a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
300-160 vce Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-348
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Updated: Jul 25, 2017
Q&As: 48

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1.Which of the following is the most accurate description of tiered storage?
A. The setup of a file structure that determines where information is placed to provide added security and
long-term storage
B. The export of inactive or fixed-content information to paper or media for long-term storage
C. Location of information based on record type, active/inactive content and the type of media required for
D. The assignment of data based on levels of protection, performance requirements, and frequency of
70-348 PDF Answer: D
2.Corporate information governance is most likely to be successful when
A. Departments develop and manage their own governance.
B. Information governance is developed prior to solution deployments.
C. IT directs, manages, and oversees governance.
D. Information governance is developed after solution deployments.
Answer: B
3.A common characteristic of folksonomies is that they
A. Are somewhat slow to develop because of the initial planning required.
B. Arise in hierarchical environments where administrators can oversee them.
C. Feature strong bibliographic control provided by their formal structure.
D. Provide an opportunity for collaborative classification by multiple users.
70-348 dumps Answer: D
4.A social media team should have representatives from which of the following areas? (Choose 3)
A. Executive Management
B. Information Technology
C. Financial Management
D. Records Management
E. Administrative Services
F. Communications
Answer: B,D,F
5.An organization seeks to maintain its information in an unalterable state. Which of these technologies is
best suited to meet this requirement?
A. Public key infrastructure
B. Write once read many
C. Private key infrastructure
D. Redacting annotation
70-348 vce Answer: B
6.An organization has just released a new. completely redesigned website. The website bounce rate has
increased by 20 percent over the previous site’s. The website manager suspects the issue results from
confusion caused by the new website’s structure, layout and/or visual cues. The best recommendation is

to start investigating by doing
A. A/B testing.
B. Multivariate testing.
C. Usability testing,
D. Conversion testing.
Answer: C
7.A statement of work (SOW) for an information management project is intended to
A. Define the scope of the project,
B. Provide project reporting.
C. Identify return on investment.
D. Identify what is to be delivered.
70-348 exam Answer: A,D
8.The purpose of conducting a knowledge audit is to (Choose 2)
A. Identify knowledge assets, resources, and locations,
B. Resolve organizational and cultural knowledge issues,
C. Develop enhanced knowledge management solutions,
D. Determine the organization’s knowledge needs.
Answer: A,D
9.Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)
A. Descriptive
B. Foundational
C. Structural
D. Core
E. Administrative
F. Elementary
70-348 pdf Answer: A,C,E
10.Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information
Management (IM) solution?
A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings
B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue
C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return
D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return
Answer: D
11.A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known
A. Information Sharing
B. Knowledge Management
C. Information Transference
D. Knowledge Delivery

70-348 dumps Answer: B
12.Vital records are defined as records that are fundamental to the functioning of an organization and are
necessary to continue operations during
A. Normal circumstances.
B. An external audit.
C. Extraordinary conditions.
D. Litigation.
Answer: C
13.In which of the following is a user’s navigation through an information space guided and structured by
the activities of others within that space?
A. Site map navigation
B. Social navigation
C. Link-based navigation
D. Breadcrumb navigation
70-348 exam Answer: B
14.What is the primary purpose of a legal hold?
A. To distribute notification of the legal obligation to prevent destruction or modification of any information
relevant to a lawsuit
B. To collect and export for review any information that pertains to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
C. To collect information based on keyword searches defined by legal counsel in the event of a
preservation notice
D. To prevent the modification or destruction of documents and electronically-stored information (ESI)
relevant to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
Answer: D
15.What type of information should be collected when conducting a data inventory? (Choose 2)
A. Data location
B. Date of the next inventory
C. Owner of the data
D. Data policies
70-348 pdf Answer: A,C

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[New Questions] Cisco New Updated CCNA ICND1 100-105 PDF, Try ICND1 100-105 PDF Dumps Online Mon, 17 Jul 2017 02:35:47 +0000 Read More]]> Congratulations! If you’re reading far enough to look at this Cisco pdf introduction, you’ve probably already decided to go for your Cisco certification. If you want to succeed as a technical person in the networking industry at all, you need to know Cisco.

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Certification Provider: Cisco
Total Questions: 309 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 11, 2017

About the Kill4exam 100-105 PDF Exams

  • Networking Terms and Definitions
  • The OSI Model
  • Subnetting
  • Cisco Routers and Switches
  • Network Security
  • IP Services and Protocols
  • IPv6
  • Access Lists
  • Network Address Translation
  • Troubleshooting Cisco Networks
  • Labs Showing You How to Configure Cisco Devices
  • Challenges and Quizzes
  • Exam tips

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Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P- frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Correct Answer: BE
What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Correct Answer: D
A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of the
following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Correct Answer: D
In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: B
When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer’s technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer’s goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Correct Answer: C
Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: CD
Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video at
any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Correct Answer: B
Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it’s very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website

B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ’ s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Correct Answer: D
Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Correct Answer: A
Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact on
recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness

C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Correct Answer: D

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[New Questions] Welcome To Buy Real 300-160 PDF CCNP Data Center On Vimeo Free Dowload Mon, 05 Jun 2017 06:31:02 +0000 Read More]]> For many candidates, preparing for the Examzoon 300-160 pdf will take time and energy, and therefore choosing a right 300-160 verified answers & questions are vital for candidates. If you choose our Cisco verified study torrent to review, you will find obtaining the certificate is not so difficult.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 360 Q&As
Last Updated: Jun 01, 2017
Exam Information:

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As an administrator of an Open Directory master and its replicas, which command would you use to force a replication?
A. ldapd
B. syncd
C. slapconfig
D. slapd.access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Mary logs in to Mac OS X v10.4 as an Active Directory user via Apple Active Directory plug-in. A network home folder has been configured for her account. By default, her home folder ________.
A. on the local volume is disabled
B. resides on an auto-mounted AFP volume from Mac OS X Server
C. is stored locally, but an SMB ome is mounted on the desktop
D. resides on the NFS volume provided by the Active Directory domain

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Your user accounts are stored on an Active Directory server. Which action is necessary to enable your users to access Mac OS X Server services that require authentication?
A. Start the LDAP server on the Mac OS X Server.
B. Manually create computer accounts on the Active Directory server.
C. Add the Mac OS X Server computer to the Authentication Search Path on the client computers.
D. Configure the Active Directory plug-in on the Mac OS X Server to connect to the Active Directory server.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
You are creating a configuration in Directory Access to access an LDAP server. The user accounts on the LDAP server do not include an attribute to specify the location of the home folder. Which mapping for the HomeDirectory attribute would enable the user account to access a home folder that has the same name as the uid value in the LDAP account?
A. #<home_dir><url>afp://</url></home_dir>
B. #<home_dir><url>afp://</url></home_dir>
C. #<home_dir><url>afp://</url><path>$uid$</path></home_dir>
D. #<home_dir><url>afp://<path>%uid</path></url></home_dir>

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Which Open Directory group record attribute is used by access control list (ACL) file permissions?
A. UniqueID
B. GeneratedUID
C. PrimaryGroupID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Which command-line utility can be used to remove Kerberos tickets from the cache on a Mac OS X client computer?
A. kdestroy
B. klist -e
C. kinit -r
D. kmod
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

You need to configure some Mac OS X computers to bind to an LDAP server not running on a Macintosh computer. This is the first time that you have tried to use this LDAP server. What should be your first step?
A. In the LDAP plug-in in Directory Access, create mappings to supplement required user account attributes that are not on the LDAP database.
B. Use an LDAP browsing tool to verify the connection settings and identify the structure and format of the data stored on the server.
C. Create a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access and determine the connection settings through experimentation.
D. Have the server system administrator modify the schema to support missing attributes that are required by Mac OS X.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Which Open Directory user record attribute is used by standard BSD file permissions?
A. naprivs
B. UniqueID
C. GeneratedUID
D. AuthenticationAuthority

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
In Mac OS X Server v10.4, Directory Services replication lets you ________.
A. replicate data between a Mac OS X Server computer and a Mac OS X client computer
B. synchronize directory data between an Open Directory server and an Active Directory server
C. configure access controls to directory structures and file systems on a remote Mac OS X Server
D. maintain a duplicate of the current contents of the LDAP and Password Servers, and the Kerberos key distribution center (KDC) on a remote Mac OS X Server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Which statement about passwords for local user accounts in Mac OS X v10.4 is true?
A. A crypt password can be 32 bytes in length; a shadow password has no length limitation.
B. DirectoryService is the authoritative authentication agent for crypt and shadow passwords.
C. Shadow passwords are created for a user account when the option is specified in System Preferences.
D. A crypt password is accessible by anyone using the computer; a shadow password is only accessible by the System Administrator (root).

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
When referring to an LDAP directory, what is the schema?
A. The method for replicating data between servers
B. The address in the directory at which searches start
C. The set of rules that describes the structure of the data in the directory
D. The set of definitions created in Directory Access that map the LDAP attributes to Open Directory attributes

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

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Download 2017 Free ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Details and Topics Online Tue, 02 May 2017 04:00:52 +0000 Read More]]> Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 22, 2017
Exam Information:

This 200-105 dumps complete study package includes

· A test-preparation routine proven to help you pass the exams

· “Do I Know This Already?” quizzes, which enable you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section

· Chapter-ending and part-ending  200-105 dumps exercises, which help you drill on key concepts you must know thoroughly

· Troubleshooting sections, which help you master the complex scenarios you will face on the exam

· The powerful Pearson IT Certification Practice Test software, complete with hundreds of well-reviewed, exam-realistic questions, customization options, and detailed performance reports

· A free copy of the CCNA ICND2 200-105 Network Simulator Lite software, complete with meaningful lab exercises that help you hone your hands-on skills with the command-line interface for routers and switches

· Links to a series of hands-on config labs developed by the author

· Online interactive practice exercises that help you hone your knowledge

· More than 50 minutes of video mentoring from the author

· A final preparation chapter, which guides you through tools and  200-105 dumps resources to help you craft your review and test-taking strategies

· Study plan suggestions and templates to help you organize and optimize your study time

200-105 dumps

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to a
communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address
Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)# network
Router(config-router)# network
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway
Answer: B,E
Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing.
Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don’t need
to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or
above we have to use these commands instead:
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk


Question No : 9 – (Topic 1) Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B,E
Port Roles
The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles
remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The
Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol
Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is
there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more
useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on
the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section  explains practical approaches to port roles.
Compatibility with 802.1D
RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note
that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy




Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Answer: D
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to




Question No : 11 – (Topic 1) What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
VTP Modes
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient
of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same
management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management



Question No : 12 – (Topic 1) Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the
blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
Explanation: 200-105 dumps
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected.




Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID




Question No : 14 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F




Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked



Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two
Cisco switches?
C. 802.1Q
Answer: B
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you
configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in
the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a
Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
200-105 dumps

The Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (200-105 ICND2) 200-105 dumps exam is a 90-minute, 45–55 question assessment that is associated with the associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

The 200-105 dumps following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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Valid and Updated Microsoft 70-411 Exam With New 70-411 Exam Questions Free Download for Certification Wed, 29 Mar 2017 09:15:05 +0000 Read More]]> Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 21, 2017
Q&As: 234
Exam Information:

I am still working towards my MCSA 2012 certification, and today I passed the Microsoft 70-411 exam for Administering Windows Server 2012 with a score of 889/1000. This means that I have just 1 more exam to go, being 70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services. In this post I’ll cover the materials I studied to pass 70-411 exam.

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  • 70-410 Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
  • 70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
  • 70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

70-411 exam

Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 65 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named
You have several Windows PowerShell scripts that execute when users log on to their
client computer. You need to ensure that all of the scripts execute completely before the users can access
their desktop. Which setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
70-411 exam



70-411 exam Question No : 66 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 200 Group Policy objects (GPOs). An administrator named Admin1 must be able to add new WMI filters from the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
You need to delegate the required permissions to Admin1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the
B. From Group Policy Management, assign Creator Owner to Admin1 for the WMI Filters
C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the Domain Admins group.
D. From Group Policy Management, assign Full control to Admin1 for the WMI Filters
Answer: D
Users with Full control permissions can create and control all WMI filters in the domain,
including WMI filters created by others.
Users with Creator owner permissions can create WMI filters, but can only control WMI
filters that they create



70-411 exam Question No : 67 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Remote Access server role installed. You have a client named Client1 that is configured as an 802. IX supplicant. You need to configure Server1 to handle authentication requests from Client1. The solution must minimize the number of authentication methods enabled on Server1. Which authentication method should you enable? To answer, select the appropriate authentication method in the answer area.
70-411 exam




70-411 exam Question No : 68 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named
All DNS servers host a DNS zone named The zone is not Active
An administrator modifies the start of authority (SOA) record for the zone.
After the modification, you discover that when you add or modify DNS records in the zone, the changes are not transferred to the DNS servers that host secondary
copies of the zone.
You need to ensure that the records are transferred to all the copies of the
zone. What should you modify in the SOA record for the zone?  To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 69 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named
You implement DirectAccess.
You need to view the properties of the DirectAccess connection.
Which connection properties should you view?
To answer, select the appropriate connection properties in the answer area.
 70-411 exam

70-411 exam



70-411 exam Question No : 70 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains two DNS servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows
Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a primary zone for Server2 hosts a
secondary zone for
You need to ensure that Server2 replicates changes to the zone every five
Which setting should you modify in the start of authority (SOA) record?
A. Retry interval
B. Expires after
C. Minimum (default) TTL
D. Refresh interval
Answer: D
By default, the refresh interval for each zone is set to 15 minutes. The refresh interval is
used to determine how often other DNS servers that load and host the zone must attempt
to renew the zone.
70-411 exam

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High Quality 2V0-620 PDF Questions Answers: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta Certification Training Mon, 13 Mar 2017 06:02:55 +0000 Read More]]> You can free download part of Kill4exam’s practice questions and answers about VMware certification 2V0-621 pdf online, as an attempt to test our quality. As long as you choose to purchase Kill4exam’s products, we will do our best to help you pass VMware certification 2V0-621 exam disposably.

Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta
Certification Provider: VMware
Total Questions: 197 Q&A
Updated on: Mar 04, 2017
Exam Product: vSphere Version: 6
Recommended Training: vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage [V6]
First Available Appointment: 31 August 2015
Exam Details Last Updated: 1 September 2015
Associated Certification:VCP6-DCV, VCP6-CMA,VCP6-DTM, VCP6-NV
Exam Information:


2V0-620 pdf

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An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the
following tasks:
Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots
Add/Remove virtual disks
Snapshot Management
Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator’s requirements for the users?
A. Virtual machine user
B. Virtual machine power user
C. Virtual Datacenter administrator
D. VMware Consolidated Backup user
Correct Answer: B

Which two roles can be modifed? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC

An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it. Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Correct Answer: AB

An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. Which
privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Confguraaon.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Confguraaon.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A

An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.

Correct Answer: B
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C
Which three Authorizaaon types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain
Correct Answer: ABD
Which three components should an administrator select when confguring vSphere permissions? (Choose
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SoluaonUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB
An administrator has confgured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platorm
Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments. Which
statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A

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