Real IT Certification Training: Pass Exam & Get Certified http://www.test-talk.org Prepare for your next IT certification exam and succeed with a high passing score, guaranteed! High quality training materilas from Test-talk.org Tue, 02 May 2017 04:06:37 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=4.4.10 Download 2017 Free ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Details and Topics Online http://www.test-talk.org/2017-free-icnd2-200-105-dumps-exam/ http://www.test-talk.org/2017-free-icnd2-200-105-dumps-exam/#respond Tue, 02 May 2017 04:00:52 +0000 http://www.test-talk.org/?p=266 Read More]]> Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 22, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html

This 200-105 dumps complete study package includes

· A test-preparation routine proven to help you pass the exams

· “Do I Know This Already?” quizzes, which enable you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section

· Chapter-ending and part-ending  200-105 dumps exercises, which help you drill on key concepts you must know thoroughly

· Troubleshooting sections, which help you master the complex scenarios you will face on the exam

· The powerful Pearson IT Certification Practice Test software, complete with hundreds of well-reviewed, exam-realistic questions, customization options, and detailed performance reports

· A free copy of the CCNA ICND2 200-105 Network Simulator Lite software, complete with meaningful lab exercises that help you hone your hands-on skills with the command-line interface for routers and switches

· Links to a series of hands-on config labs developed by the author

· Online interactive practice exercises that help you hone your knowledge

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200-105 dumps

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to a
communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B,E
Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing.
Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don’t need
to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or
above we have to use these commands instead:
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

 

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1) Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf
a.shtml
Port Roles
The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles
remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The
Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol
Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is
there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more
useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on
the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section  explains practical approaches to port roles.
Compatibility with 802.1D
RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note
that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy
bridges.

 

 

 

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to
VLAN 1.

 

 

 

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1) What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html
VTP Modes
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient
of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same
management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN
information.
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management
domain.

 

 

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1) Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the
blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
Explanation: 200-105 dumps
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected.

 

 

 

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID

 

 

 

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:

 

 

 

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked

 

 

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two
Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.
shtml
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you
configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in
the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a
Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
200-105 dumps

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Valid and Updated Microsoft 70-411 Exam With New 70-411 Exam Questions Free Download for Certification http://www.test-talk.org/valid-and-updated-microsoft-70-411-exam/ http://www.test-talk.org/valid-and-updated-microsoft-70-411-exam/#respond Wed, 29 Mar 2017 09:15:05 +0000 http://www.test-talk.org/?p=250 Read More]]> Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 21, 2017
Q&As: 234
Exam Information:http://www.teststarter.com/70-411.html

I am still working towards my MCSA 2012 certification, and today I passed the Microsoft 70-411 exam for Administering Windows Server 2012 with a score of 889/1000. This means that I have just 1 more exam to go, being 70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services. In this post I’ll cover the materials I studied to pass 70-411 exam.

At the moment I have completed 2 of the 3 exams:

  • 70-410 Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
  • 70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
  • 70-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

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Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 65 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have several Windows PowerShell scripts that execute when users log on to their
client computer. You need to ensure that all of the scripts execute completely before the users can access
their desktop. Which setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
70-411 exam

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 66 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 200 Group Policy objects (GPOs). An administrator named Admin1 must be able to add new WMI filters from the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC).
You need to delegate the required permissions to Admin1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin1. What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the
WinRMRemoteWMIUsers__group.
B. From Group Policy Management, assign Creator Owner to Admin1 for the WMI Filters
container.
C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add Admin1 to the Domain Admins group.
D. From Group Policy Management, assign Full control to Admin1 for the WMI Filters
container.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Users with Full control permissions can create and control all WMI filters in the domain,
including WMI filters created by others.
Users with Creator owner permissions can create WMI filters, but can only control WMI
filters that they create

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 67 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Remote Access server role installed. You have a client named Client1 that is configured as an 802. IX supplicant. You need to configure Server1 to handle authentication requests from Client1. The solution must minimize the number of authentication methods enabled on Server1. Which authentication method should you enable? To answer, select the appropriate authentication method in the answer area.
70-411 exam

20170329165556

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 68 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All DNS servers host a DNS zone named adatum.com. The adatum.com zone is not Active
Directory-integrated.
An administrator modifies the start of authority (SOA) record for the adatum.com zone.
After the modification, you discover that when you add or modify DNS records in the
adatum.com zone, the changes are not transferred to the DNS servers that host secondary
copies of the adatum.com zone.
You need to ensure that the records are transferred to all the copies of the adatum.com
zone. What should you modify in the SOA record for the adatum.com zone?  To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 69 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You implement DirectAccess.
You need to view the properties of the DirectAccess connection.
Which connection properties should you view?
To answer, select the appropriate connection properties in the answer area.
 70-411 exam

70-411 exam

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 70 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains two DNS servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows
Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com. Server2 hosts a
secondary zone for contoso.com.
You need to ensure that Server2 replicates changes to the contoso.com zone every five
minutes.
Which setting should you modify in the start of authority (SOA) record?
A. Retry interval
B. Expires after
C. Minimum (default) TTL
D. Refresh interval
Answer: D
Explanation:
By default, the refresh interval for each zone is set to 15 minutes. The refresh interval is
used to determine how often other DNS servers that load and host the zone must attempt
to renew the zone.
70-411 exam

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Vendor: VMware
Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta
Certification Provider: VMware
Total Questions: 197 Q&A
Updated on: Mar 04, 2017
Exam Product: vSphere Version: 6
Recommended Training: vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage [V6]
First Available Appointment: 31 August 2015
Exam Details Last Updated: 1 September 2015
Associated Certification:VCP6-DCV, VCP6-CMA,VCP6-DTM, VCP6-NV
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QUESTION 1
An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the
following tasks:
Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots
Add/Remove virtual disks
Snapshot Management
Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator’s requirements for the users?
A. Virtual machine user
B. Virtual machine power user
C. Virtual Datacenter administrator
D. VMware Consolidated Backup user
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which two roles can be modifed? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 3
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it. Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. Which
privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Confguraaon.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Confguraaon.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three Authorizaaon types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8
Which three components should an administrator select when confguring vSphere permissions? (Choose
three.)
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SoluaonUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
An administrator has confgured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platorm
Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments. Which
statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-28

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Free ISC CISSP Study Guide and Training http://www.test-talk.org/free-isc-cissp-study-guide-and-training/ http://www.test-talk.org/free-isc-cissp-study-guide-and-training/#respond Sat, 22 Oct 2016 09:24:50 +0000 http://www.test-talk.org/?p=222 Read More]]> QUESTION 31
The following is NOT a security characteristic we need to consider while choosing a biometric identification systems:
A. data acquisition process
B. cost
C. enrollment process
D. speed and user interface
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cost is a factor when considering Biometrics but it is not a security characteristic. All the other answers are incorrect because they are security characteristics related to Biometrics.
Data acquisition process can cause a security concern because if the process is not fast and efficient it can discourage individuals from using the process.
Enrollment process can cause a security concern because the enrollment process has to be quick and efficient. This process captures data for authentication.
Speed and user interface can cause a security concern because this also impacts the users acceptance rate of biometrics. If they are not comfortable with the interface and speed they might sabotage the devices or otherwise attempt to circumvent them.
References:
OIG Access Control (Biometrics) (pgs 165-167)
From: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1, Pages 5-6
** in process of correction **

ISC CISSP

QUESTION 32
In biometric identification systems, at the beginning, it was soon apparent that truly positive identification could only be based on physical attributes of a person. This raised the necessity of answering 2 questions :
A. what was the sex of a person and his age
B. what part of body to be used and how to accomplish identification that is viable
C. what was the age of a person and his income level
D. what was the tone of the voice of a person and his habits
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Today implementation of fast, accurate reliable and user-acceptable biometric identification systems is already taking place. Unique physical attributes or behavior of a person are used for that purpose. From: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1, Page 7
QUESTION 33
In biometric identification systems, the parts of the body conveniently available for identification are:
A. neck and mouth
B. hands, face, and eyes
C. feet and hair
D. voice and neck
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Today implementation of fast, accurate, reliable, and user-acceptable biometric identification systems are already under way. Because most identity authentication takes place when a people are fully clothed (neck to feet and wrists), the parts of the body conveniently available for this purpose are hands, face, and eyes.
From: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1, Page 7
QUESTION 34
Controlling access to information systems and associated networks is necessary for the preservation of their:
A. Authenticity, confidentiality and availability
B. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
C. integrity and availability.
D. authenticity,confidentiality, integrity and availability.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Controlling access to information systems and associated networks is necessary for the preservation of their confidentiality, integrity and availability.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 31
QUESTION 35
To control access by a subject (an active entity such as individual or process) to an object (a passive entity such as a file) involves setting up:
A. Access Rules
B. Access Matrix
C. Identification controls
D. Access terminal
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Controlling access by a subject (an active entity such as individual or process) to an object (a passive entity such as a file) involves setting up access rules.
These rules can be classified into three access control models: Mandatory, Discretionary, and Non-Discretionary.
An access matrix is one of the means used to implement access control.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 33
Answer:

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QUESTION NO: 201
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Honey pot
B. Bastion host
C. Data pot
D. Files pot
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 202
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company uses Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for wireless security. Who among the following can authenticate from the access point of the network?
A. Only users within the company.
B. Anyone can authenticate.
C. Only users with the correct WEP key.
D. Only the administrator.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 203
Which of the following terms is used for the process of securing a system or a device on a network infrastructure?
A. Sanitization
B. Cryptography

C. Hardening
D. Authentication
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 204
Which of the following statements about Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is used to provide host name resolution in a TCP/IP-based network.
B. It is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers.
C. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration.
D. It reduces the risk of a denial of service (DoS) attack.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 205
Which of the following two components does Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) consist of?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Data service
B. Account service
C. Ticket-granting service
D. Authentication service
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 206
Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. VPN

B. ATM
C. SSL
D. SET

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 207
Which of the following encryption algorithms are based on stream ciphers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. RC4
B. FISH
C. Blowfish
D. Twofish
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 208
Which of the following is the most secure policy for a firewall?
A. Passing all packets unless they are explicitly rejected.
B. Enabling all internal interfaces.
C. Blocking all packets unless they are explicitly permitted.
D. Disabling all external interfaces.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 209
Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Password guessing attack
D. Smurf attack
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 210

You work as a Web Developer for WebCrunch Inc. You create a web site that contains information about the company’s products and services. The web site is to be used by the company’s suppliers only. Which of the following options will you use to specify the nature of access to the web site?
A. Intranet
B. Internet and Intranet
C. Internet
D. Extranet
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 211
Which of the following statements about buffer overflow are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a situation that occurs when a storage device runs out of space.
B. It can terminate an application.
C. It can improve application performance.
D. It is a situation that occurs when an application receives more data than it is configured to accept
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 212
Which of the following ports is used by a BOOTP server?
A. UDP port 389
B. UDP port 67
C. TCP port 80
D. TCP port 110
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 213
Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer?
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)
D. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 214
Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 215
Which of the following authentication protocols provides support for a wide range of authentication methods, such as smart cards and certificates?
A. EAP
B. CHAP
C. MS-CHAP v2
D. PAP

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 216

Which of the following performs packet screening for security on the basis of port numbers?
A. Switch
B. DNS
C. Hub
D. Firewall
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 217
Which of the following are man-made threats that an organization faces?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Frauds
B. Strikes
C. Employee errors
D. Theft
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 218
In the DNS Zone transfer enumeration, an attacker attempts to retrieve a copy of the entire zone file for a domain from a DNS server. The information provided by the DNS zone can help an attacker gather user names, passwords, and other valuable information. To attempt a zone transfer, an attacker must be connected to a DNS server that is the authoritative server for that zone. Besides this, an attacker can launch a Denial of Service attack against the zone’s DNS servers by flooding them with a lot of requests. Which of the following tools can an attacker use to perform a DNS zone transfer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dig
B. NSLookup
C. DSniff
D. Host

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 219
Which of the following security models deal only with integrity?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Biba
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Biba-Wilson
D. Clark-Wilson
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 220
In which of the following IDS evasion attacks does an attacker send a data packet such that IDS accepts the data packet but the host computer rejects it?
A. Fragmentation overlap attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Fragmentation overwrite attack
D. Insertion attack

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 221
Which of the following services does Internet Information Server (IIS) provide along with HTTP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. SMTP
B. FTP C.PPTP D.NNTP
Answer: A,B,D QUESTION NO: 222

Which of the following are the responsibilities of a custodian with regard to data in an information classification program?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data
B. Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary
C. Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users
D. Determining what level of classification the information requires
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 223
Which of the following statements about Microsoft hotfix are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is the term used by Microsoft for major service pack releases.
B. It is generally related to security problems.
C. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack releases.
D. It is generally related to the problems of a Web server’s performance.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 224
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He notices that UDP port 137 of the We-are-secure server is open. Assuming that the Network Administrator of We-are-secure Inc. has not changed the default port values of the services, which of the following services is running on UDP port 137?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. TELNET

D. NetBIOS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 225
Which of the following tools is used for breaking digital watermark?
A. TRACERT
B. Trin00
C. Fpipe
D. 2Mosaic
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 226
Which of the following are used to suppress electrical and computer fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Halon
B. Soda acid
C. CO2
D. Water
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 227
Which of the following are the major tasks of risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Building Risk free systems
B. Assuring the integrity of organizational data
C. Risk control
D. Risk identification

Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 228
Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SRV
B. CNAME
C. MX
D. SOA
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 229
Which of the following groups represents the most likely source of an asset loss through the inappropriate use of computers?
A. Employees
B. Hackers
C. Visitors
D. Customers
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 230
Which of the following types of coaxial cable is used for cable TV and cable modems?
A. RG-62
B. RG-59
C. RG-8
D. RG-58
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 231
Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?
A. Cryptanalysis
B. Kerberos
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptography
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 232
Which of the following is used by the Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm?
A. Password
B. Access control entry
C. Key exchange
D. Access control list
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 233
Which of the following provides secure online payment services?
A. CA
B. IEEE
C. ACH
D. ICSA
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 234
John works as an Ethical Hacker for PassGuide Inc. He wants to find out the ports that are open in PassGuide’s server using a port scanner. However, he does not want to establish a full TCP connection. Which of the following scanning techniques will he use to accomplish this task?

A. TCP SYN
B. TCP SYN/ACK
C. TCP FIN
D. Xmas tree
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 235
Which of the following statements about the Instant messaging programs are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Most of the programs have no encryption facility.
B. They allow effective and efficient communication and immediate receipt of reply.
C. They provide secure password management.
D. They can bypass corporate firewalls.

Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 236
Which of the following tools is used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses?
A. NETSH
B. NMAP
C. Port scanner
D. Macof
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 237
Mark works as a Webmaster for Infonet Inc. He sets up an e-commerce site. He wants to accept online payments through credit cards on this site. He wants the credit card numbers to be encrypted. What will Mark do to accomplish the task?

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NO: 176

Which of the following protocols work at the Application layer of an OSI model?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)
D. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 177
Which of the following statements about system hardening are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is used for securing the computer hardware.
B. It can be achieved by locking the computer room.
C. It is used for securing an operating system.
D. It can be achieved by installing service packs and security updates on a regular basis.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 178
Which of the following are considered Bluetooth security violations?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Social engineering
B. Bluesnarfing
C. SQL injection attack
D. Bluebug attack
E. Cross site scripting attack
Answer: B,D QUESTION NO: 179

Which of the following are intrusion detection device?
A. Fingerprint reader
B. Smart card reader
C. Retinal scanner
D. CCTV
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 180
Which of the following statements about biometric authentication is true?
A. A user provides his user name and password for authentication.
B. A user uses a smart card for authentication.
C. A sensor scans some physical characteristics of a user and sends that information to the authentication server.
D. A user is issued a device that is used for authentication.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 181
Which of the following protocols work at the Network layer of the OSI model?
A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 182
Which of the following protocols are used to provide secure communication between a client and a server over the Internet?

Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. HTTP
B. SSL
C. SNMP
D. TLS
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 183
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
B. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 184
Which of the following types of evidence is considered as the best evidence?
A. A copy of the original document
B. A computer-generated record
C. Information gathered through the witness’s senses
D. The original document
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 185
You work as a Network Administrator for Rick International. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. A user named Kevin wants to set an SSH terminal at home to connect to the company’s network. You have to configure your company’s router for it. By default, which of the following

standard ports does the SSH protocol use for connection?
A. 21
B. 443

C. 80
D. 22
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 186
Which of the following IP addresses are private addresses?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. 10.0.0.3
B. 192.168.15.2
C. 192.166.54.32
D. 19.3.22.17
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 187
What is the hash value length of the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-1)?
A. 164-bit
B. 320-bit
C. 128-bit
D. 160-bit
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following viruses masks itself from applications or utilities to hide itself by detection of anti-virus software?

A. Macro virus
B. E-mail virus
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 189
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows 2000, TCP/IP-based class C network consisting of 200 hosts. The network uses private IP addressing. A computer on the network is connected to the Internet. The management plans to increase the number of hosts to 300. The management also wants all hosts to be able to access the Internet through the existing connection. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Implement NAT.
B. Upgrade your class C network to a class B network.
C. Add a router to your network.
D. Add a bridge to your network.
E. Apply for more IP addresses for your LAN.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 190
Which of the following statements about RSA algorithm are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a block cipher in which plain text and cipher text are integers between 0 and n-1.
B. It is a stream cipher in which plain text and cipher text are integers between 0 and n-1.
C. It is an asymmetric algorithm.
D. It is a symmetric algorithm.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 191

Which of the following terms refers to the process in which headers and trailers are added around user data?
A. Encryption
B. Encapsulation
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 192
Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) operates on 64-bit blocks using a
-bit key.
A. 128
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 193
Which of the following are types of social engineering attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. An unauthorized person gains entrance to the building where the company’s database server resides and accesses the server by pretending to be an employee.
B. An unauthorized person inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts.
C. An unauthorized person calls a user and pretends to be a system administrator in order to get the user’s password.
D. An unauthorized person modifies packet headers by using someone else’s IP address to hide his identity.
Answer: A,C QUESTION NO: 194

Which of the following is the default port for TACACS?
A. UDP port 49
B. TCP port 443
C. TCP port 25
D. TCP port 80
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 195
Which of the following is generally practiced by the police or any other recognized governmental authority?
A. SMB signing
B. Phishing
C. Spoofing
D. Wiretapping
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 196
Which of the following is a documentation of guidelines that computer forensics experts use to handle evidences?
A. Chain of custody
B. Evidence access policy
C. Chain of evidence
D. Incident response policy
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 197

Which of the following are the primary components of a discretionary access control (DAC) model?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. User’s group
B. Access rights and permissions
C. File and data ownership
D. Smart card
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 198
Which of the following ensures that a sender cannot deny sending a message?
A. Authentication
B. Snooping
C. Spoofing
D. Non repudiation
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 199
Which of the following protocols work at the network layer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. OSPF
B. SPX
C. IGMP
D. RIP
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 200
Which of the following is executed when a predetermined event occurs?

A. Worm
B. Trojan horse
C. Logic bomb
D. MAC
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following attacks is specially used for cracking a password?
A. DoS attack
B. PING attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Vulnerability attack

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 167
Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection. Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
B. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
C. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
D. IP Security (IPSec)
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 168
In which of the following cryptographic attacking techniques does an attacker obtain encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm?
A. Ciphertext only attack
B. Chosen ciphertext attack
C. Known plaintext attack
D. Chosen plaintext attack
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 169
Which of the following are based on malicious code?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Worm
B. Biometrics
C. Denial-of-Service (DoS)

D. Trojan horse
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 170
Which of the following devices performs protocol and format translations?
A. Switch
B. Modem
C. Gateway
D. Repeater
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 171
Which of the following processes is known as Declassification?
A. Verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process.
B. Physically destroying the media and the information stored on it.
C. Assessing the risk involved in making a confidential document available to public.
D. Removing the content from the media so that it is difficult to restore.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 172
Which of the following components come under the physical layer of the OSI model?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Wall jacks
B. Hubs
C. Switches
D. Fiber cabling
E. RJ-45 connectors
Answer: A,B,D,E QUESTION NO: 173

Which of the following is ensured by the concept of availability in information system security?
A. Data modifications are not made by an unauthorized user or process.
B. The intentional or unintentional unauthorized disclosure of a message or important document contents is prevented.
C. The systems are up and running when they are needed.
D. Unauthorized modifications are not made by authorized users.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 174
Which of the following is an authentication protocol?
A. LDAP
B. PPTP
C. TLS
D. Kerberos
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 175
Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Biba model
D. Clark-Wilson
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 176

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Cisco 350-030 New Questions, New Release Cisco 350-030 Exam UP To 50% Off http://www.test-talk.org/cisco-350-030-new-questions-new-release-cisco-350-030-exam-up-to-50-off/ http://www.test-talk.org/cisco-350-030-new-questions-new-release-cisco-350-030-exam-up-to-50-off/#respond Sat, 03 Sep 2016 07:58:37 +0000 http://www.test-talk.org/?p=211 Read More]]> Most accurate Cisco 350-030 practice test for you to free download.csci-scrc is also an authenticated IT certifications site that offer all the new questions and answers timely.Visit the site Flydumps.com to get free Cisco 350-030 VCE test engine and PDF.

QUESTION 61
What is the consequence that one can expect when an IPSec authentication header (AH) is used in conjunction with NAT on the same IPSec endpoint?
A. NAT has no impact on the authentication header.
B. IPSec communication will fail due to AH creating a hash on the entire IP packet before NAT.
C. Only IKE will fail due to AH using only IKE negotiation.
D. AH is no a factor when used in conjunction with NAT, unless Triple DES is included in the transform set.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Which of the following statements regarding SNMP v1 community strings is valid?
A. SNMP v1 community strings are encrypted across the wire.
B. SNMP v1 community strings can be used to gain unauthorized access into a device if the read-write string is known.
C. SNMP v1 community strings are always the same for reading & writing data.
D. SNMP v1 community strings are used to define the community of devices in a single VLAN.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
How many IPSec security associations should be active on the system under normal circumstances, after a single IPSec tunnel has been established?
A. One per protocol (ESP and AH)
B. Two per protocol (ESP and AH)
C. Three per protocol (ESP and AH)
D. Four per protocol (ESP and AH)
E. Five total (either ESP or AH)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
Which of the following does NOT qualify to be an example of a supported ISAKMP keying mechanism?
A. Pre-shared
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. RSA
D. Certificate authority

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
What does the transport mode & tunnel mode in the IPSec protocol suite describe?
A. It describes AH header and datagram layouts.
B. It describes Diffie-Hellman keying.
C. It describes SHA security algorithm.
D. It describes ESP header and datagram layouts.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Exhibit: /etc/hosts.equiv:
2.2.2.2 /etc/passwd: user_B:x:1003:1:User B:/export/home/user_B:/bin/ksh user_C:x:1004:1:User C:/export/home/user_C:/bin/ksh with host_B having the ip 2.2.2.2 & host C having the ip 3.3.3.3 Given the files shown in the exhibit, which policy would be enforced?
A. Allow user_B on Host_B to access host_A via rlogin, rsh, rcp, & rcmd without a password.
B. Allow users to telnet from host_B to host_A but prevent users from telnetting from unlisted hosts including host_C
C. Allow users on host_A to telnet to host_B but not to unlisted hosts including host_C
D. Allow user_B to access host_A via rlogin, rsh, rcp, & rcmd with a password but to prevent access from unlisted hosts including host_C

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
Given the situation where two routers have their SA lifetime configured for 86399 seconds and 2 million kilobytes. What will happen after 24 hours have passed and 500 KB of traffic have been tunneled?
A. If pre-shared keys are being used, traffic will stop until new keys are manually obtained and inputted.
B. The SA will be renegotiated.
C. The SA will not be renegotiated until 2 MB of traffic have been tunneled.
D. Unencrypted traffic will be sent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
The Certkiller Security Manager needs to configure an IPSec connection using ISAKMP with routers from mixed vendors. Which information would be superfluous when configuring the local security device to communicate with the remote machine?
A. Remote peer address.
B. Main mode attributes.
C. Peer gateway subnet.
D. Quick mode attributes.
E. Addresses that need to be encrypted.
F. Encryption authentication method.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Why is an ISAKMP NOTIFY message used between IPSec endpoints?
A. ISAKMP NOTIFY message informs the other side of failures that occurred.
B. ISAKMP NOTIFY message informs the other side of the status of an attempted IPSec transaction.
C. ISAKMP NOTIFY message informs the other side when a physical link with an applied SA has been torn down.
D. ISAKMP NOTIFY message informs the other side when an SA has been bought up on an unstable physical connection; potential circuit flapping can cause problems for SPI continuity.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 70
Exhibit:

What could be the most likely reason why Host 1 cannot ping Host 2 and Host 2 cannot ping Host 1?
A. Split horizon issue.
B. Default gateway on hosts.
C. Routing problem with RIP.
D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
Which of the following statements regarding the Diffie-Hellman key exchange is invalid?
A. The local secret key is combined with known prime numbers n and g in each router for the purposes of generating a Public key.
B. Each router uses the received random integer to generate a local secret (private) crypto key.
C. Each router combines the private key received from the opposite router with its own public key in the creation of a shared secret key.
D. The two routers involved in the key swap generate large random integers (i), which are exchanged covertly.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Exhibit: Configuration of Router A: crypto map tag 1 ipsec-isakmp set security-association lifetime seconds 240 set security-association lifetime kilobytes 10000 Configuration of Peer Host Router B: crypto map tag 1 ipsec-isakmp set security-association lifetime seconds 120 set security-association lifetime kilobytes 20000 Router A is configured as shown. What situation will you encounter after 110 seconds and 1500 kilobytes of traffic?
A. There will be no communication between Router A and Router B because the security association lifetimes were misconfigured; they should be the same.
B. The security association will not be renegotiated until 20000 kilobytes of traffic have traversed the link, because the interval will be the greater of 2 parameters – time and kilobytes.
C. Security association renegotiation will have started by default
D. The present security associations will continue until almost 240 seconds have elapsed, assuming the same traffic pattern and rate.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know which encryption algorithm is used for Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption. What will your reply be?
A. DES CBC
B. RSA RC4
C. RSA CBC
D. DES RC4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
What type of crypto maps and keying mechanism would advice the new Certkiller trainee technician to be the most secure for a router connecting to a dial PC IPSec client?
A. Static crypto maps with pre-shared keys.
B. Static crypto maps with RSA.
C. Dynamic crypto maps with CA.
D. Dynamic crypto maps with pre-shared keys.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
You are the Certkiller network administrator. The Certkiller network is using Certificate Authorizes (CA) for ISAKMP negotiation. You want to configure ISAKMP.
Which of the following will work? (Select one)
A. crypto isakmp policy 4 authentication cert-rsa
B. crypto isakmp policy 4 authentication ca
C. cpto isakmp policy 4
authentication cert-sig
D. crypto isakmp policy 4 authentication rsa-sig
E. cryptp isakmp policy 4 authentication rsa-enc

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . A workstation on the Certkiller network has been the victim of a program that invokes a land.c attack.
The newly appointed Certkiller trainee technician wants to know what this program does. What will your reply be?
A. It sends a stimules stream of ICMP echo requests (“pings”) to the broadcast address of the reflector subnet, the source addresses of these packets are falsified to be the address of the ultimate target.
B. It sends a stimulus stream of UDP echo requests to the broadcast address of the reflector subnet, the source addresses of these packets are falsified to be the address of the ultimate target.
C. It sends an IP datagram with the protocol field of the IP header set to 1 (ICMP), the Last Fragment bit is set, and (IP offset *8)+ (IP data length) 65535; in other words, the IP offser (which represents the starting position of this fragment in the original packet, and which is in 8 byte units) plus the rest of the packet is greater than the maximum size for an IP packet.
D. It sends a TCP SYN packet (a connection initiation), giving the target host’s address as both source and destination, and using the same port on the target host as both source and destination.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
You are the network administrator at Certkiller . You want to pass RIP updates through an IPSec tunnel.
What should you do?
A. Define the IPSec tunnel as an interface on the router and specify that interface in the RIP configuration.
B. Define the IPSec proxy to allow and accept broadcast traffic.
C. Define the IPSec proxy to allow only RIP traffic through the tunnel.
D. Define a GRE tunnel, send the RIP updates through the GRE and encrypt all GRE traffic.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which off the following lists the correct port numbers required for IPSec communication?
A. UDP 500 ISAKMP, IP Protocol 51 for ESP, IP Protocol 50 for AH
B. UDP 500 ISAKMP, IP Protocol 50 for ESP, IP Protocol 51 for AH
C. UDP 500 ISAKMP, IP Protocol 51 for ESP, IP Protocol 500 for AH
D. UDP 500 ISAKMP, TCP 51 for ESP, TCP 50 for AH
E. UDP 500 ISAKMP, TCP 50 for ESP, TCP 51 for AH
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
How can a Denial of Service (DoS) attack to a Firewall device be carried out?
A. By flooding the device through sending excessive mail messages to it..
B. Sending excessive UDP packets to it.
C. By sending more packets to the device that it can process.
D. Sending ICMP pings with very large data lenghts to it.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 80
Which of the following IPSec components can be used to ensure the integrity of the data in an IP packet?
A. ESP
B. IPSH
C. AH
D. TTL
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81
How would you characterize the source and type in a denial of service attack on a router?
A. By performing a show ip interface to see the type and source of the attack based upon the access-list matches.
B. By performing a show interface to see the transmitted load (txload) and receive load (rxload); if the interface utilization is not maxed out, there is no attack underway.
C. By setting up an access-list to permit all ICMP, TCP, & UDP traffic with the log or log-input commands, then use the show access-list and show log commands to determine the type and source of attack.
D. By applying an access-list to all incoming & outgoing interfaces, turn off route-cache on all interfaces, then, when telnetted into the router perform a debug ip packet detail.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
The Certkiller Network Administrator makes use of manual keys in her IPSec implementation. However, when data is sent across the tunnel, an error is generated that indicates malformed packets.
What is the most probable reason for this error?
A. Unmatching cipher keys on both sides.
B. Incomplete Phase One negotiation.
C. Corrupted packets due to invalid key exchanges.
D. Mismatched ISAKMP pre-shared keys on both sides.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
IKE Phase 1 policy negotiation can include:
A. Main Mode
B. Neither Main Mode or Quick Mode
C. Either Aggressive Mode or Main Mode
D. Quick Mode only
E. IPSec mode
F. Aggressive mode

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
IKE Phase 1 policy does not include negotiation of the:
A. Encryption algorithm
B. Authentication method
C. Diffie-Hellman group
D. Lifetime
E. Crypto-map access-lists

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
IKE Phase 1 policy negotiation includes:
A. Main mode
B. Aggressive mode
C. Either Main mode or Aggressive mode
D. Neither Main mode nor Aggressive mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Network Topology Exhibit:

Given the shown Ipsec example and IPSec with IKE, when a user attempts to telnet form network 1.1.1.X to network 3.3.3.X:
A. The telnet will succeed but the traffic will not be encrypted.
B. The telnet will fail because the access lists are asymmetric
C. The telnet will succeed and the traffic will be bidirectionally encrypted
D. The telnet will fail because access-list 101 should have been applied to router A’s interface 1.1.1.2

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 87
RPF is an acronym for which of the following: A. Reverse Path Flooding
B. Router Protocol Filter
C. Routing Protocol File
D. Reverse Path Forwarding
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which negotiation is excluded from IKE Phase 1 policy?
A. Encryption algorithm
B. Authentication method.
C. Crypto-map access-list
D. Diffie-Hellman group.
E. Lifetime
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
PPTP:
A. Shares TPC and UDP ports 137, 128, & 139 with NetBIOS traffic.
B. Is a modified version of GRE.
C. Uses TCP ports 1030, 1031, & 1032.
D. Used UDP ports 1030, 1031, & 1032.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
You are the network technician at Certkiller . You are implementing a firewall on the Certkiller network.
You need to ensure that PPTP can pass through the firewall. Which of the following should you permit?
A. IP Protocol 47 and UDP 1723
B. IP Protocol 47 and TCP 47.
C. IP Protocol 47 and TCP 1723.
D. IP Protocol 1723 and TCP 47.
E. TCP and UDP 1723.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
802.1x is initiated by which actions?
A. A machine that is plugged into a switch activates it’s Ethernet port
B. A switch or router sends an EOL start message
C. A certificate being passed to an authentication server
D. A radius authentication server request from a client
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
What would be the best reason for selecting L2TP as a tunnel protocol for a VPN Client?
A. L2TP uses TCP as a lower level protocol so the transmission are connection oriented, resulting in more
reliable delivery.
B. L2TP uses PPP so address allocation and authentication is built into the protocol instead of relying on IPSec extended functions, like mode config and x-auth.
C. L2TP does not allow the use of wildcard pre-shred keys, which is not as secure as some other methods.
D. L2TP has less overhead than GRE.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
A Security Manager needs to allow L2TP traffic through the firewall into the Internet network.
What ports generally need to be opened to allow this traffic to pass?
A. TCP/UDP 1207
B. TCP/UDP 500
C. IP 50, IP 51
D. TCP 49
E. UDP 1701
F. TCP 1072

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 94
What process will normally occur if an active Main Mode generated Phase One security association times out?
A. Only Quick mode security associations will be regenerated.
B. Main mdoe and Quick mode security associations must be regenerated.
C. Aggressive mode will regenerate new security associations.
D. Only Phase One security associations must be regenerated.
E. No security associations will be regenerated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
A Security Manager needs to allow L2TP traffic through the firewall into the Internet network.
What ports generally need to be opended to allow this traffic to pass?
A. TCP/UDP 1207
B. TCP/UDP 500
C. IP 50, IP 51
D. TCP 49
E. UDP 1701
F. TCP 1072
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 96
Identify the two types of access hardware involved in an L2TP connection: (Multiple answer)
A. L2TP Access Concentrator (LAC)
B. Remote Access Concentrator (RAC)
C. Layer 2 Forwarding Device (L2FD)
D. L2TP Network Server (LNS)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 97
When implementing network security at a specific site what would be your first step?
A. Hire a qualified consultant to install a firewall and configure your router to limit access to known traffic.
B. Run software to identify flaws in your network perimeter.
C. You must design a security policy.
D. You have to purchase and install a firewall for network protection.
E. You need to install access-control lists in your perimeter routers, to ensure that only known traffic is getting through your router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
Why would you advice the new Certkiller trainee technician to select L2TP as a tunnel protocol for a VPN Client?
A. L2TP makes use of TCP as a lower level protocol to result in conntection oriented transmissions, resulting in more reliable delivery.
B. L2TP makes use of PPP so address allocation and authentication is built into the protocol instead of IPSec extended function reliant, like mode config and a-auth.
C. L2TP does not permit wildcard pre-shared keys usage, which is not as secure as some other methods.
D. L2TP has less overhead than GRE.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
TFTP security May be controlled by: (multiple answer)
A. A username/password
B. A default TFTP directory
C. A TFTP directory
D. A TFTP file
E. A pre-existing file on the server before it will accept a put
F. File privileges
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 100
Which of the following controls TFTP security? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A default TFTP directory.
B. A username/password.
C. A TFTP file.
D. A pre-existing file on the server before it will accept a put.
E. File privileges.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 101
Which of the following is a well known port commonly used for TFTP?
A. TCP 23
B. UDP 69
C. UDP 23
D. UDP 161

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
Why would you advice the new Certkiller trainee technician NOT to use TFTP with authentication?
A. TFTP makes use of UDP as transport method.
B. A server initiates TFTP.
C. TFTP protocol has no hook for a username/password.
D. TFTP is already secure.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
What does the TFTP protocol do?
A. TFTP protocol makes use of the UDP transport layer and requires user authentication.
B. TFTP protocol makes use of the TCP transport layer and does not require user authentication.
C. TFTP protocol makes use of the UDP transport layer and does not require user authentication.
D. TFTP protocol makes use of TCP port 69.
E. TFTP protocol makes prevents unauthorized access by doing reverse DNS lookups before allowing a connection.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
Which statements about FTP are true? Select two.
A. FTP always uses two separate TCP sessions – one for control and one for data.
B. With passive mode FTP, both the control and data TCP session are initialed from the client.
C. With active mode FTP, the server the “PORT” command to tell the client on which port it wishes to send and data.
D. For both active and passive mode FTP, the control session on the server always TCP port 21, and the data session
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 105
Network topology exhibit Symptoms: Syslog logging: enabled (0 messages dropped, 0 flushes, 0 overruns) Console loggin: level warnings, 0 messages logged Monitor logging: level informational, 0 messages logged

Buffer logging: level informational, 0 messages logged Trap loggin: level informational, 0 message lines logged Note: Router Certkiller 1’s CPU is normally about 25 busy switching packets Scenario: Host Certkiller A cannot reach the Certkiller C FTP Server, but can reach Host Certkiller B. The network administrator suspects that packets are traveling from network 10.1.5.0 to the Certkiller C FTP Server, but packets are not returning. The administrator logs in to console part of Router Certkiller 1. When Host Certkiller A sends a ping to the Certkiller C FTP Server, the administrator executes a “debug ip packet” command on the router.
The administrator does not see any output, what additional commands could be used to see the packet flowing from Ethernet 0 to Ethernet 1?
A. terminal monitor
B. configure terminal logging console debug interfaces ethernet 1 no ip route-cache
C. configuring terminal logging console debug
D. configure terminal no logging buffered
E. configure terminal interface ethernet0 no ip route-cache

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
A network administrator is troubleshooting a problem with FTP services. If a device blocks the data connection, the administrator should expect to see:
A. Very slow connect times
B. Incomplete execution, when issuing commands like “pwd” or “cd”
C. No problems at all
D. User login problems
E. Failure when listing a directory

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 107
When building a non-passive FTP data connection, the FTP client:
A. Indicates the port number to be use for sending data over the command channel via the PORT command
B. Receives all data on port 20, the same port the FTP server daemon send data from
C. Uses port 20 for establishing the command channel and port 21 for the data channel
D. Initiates the connection form an ephemeral port to the RFC specified port of the server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
The Certkiller network administrator is troubleshooting a problem with FTP services. What will the administrator encounter if a device blocks the data connection?
A. The administrator will experience very slow connect times.
B. Incomplete execution, when issuing commands like “pwd” or “cd”.
C. User login problems will occur.
D. Failure when listing a directory.
E. No problems at all.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
What role does the FTP client play when building a non-passive FTP data connection?
A. The FTP client indicates the port number to be used for sending data over the command channel via the PORT command.
B. The FTP client receives all data on port 20, the same port the FTP server daemon sends data from.
C. The FTP client makes use of port 20 for establishing the command channel and port 21 for the data channel.
D. The FTP client initiates the connection from an ephemeral port to the RFC specified port of the server.

Correct Answer: A
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